Clerical error perhaps, but it seems to me that these two answers are backwards. I am confused
but here is my thought process when reading these questions:
The second question asks for the expected voltage based on 400 V being
applied from X1 to X4. I'm thinking I would measure 0V from X1 to X5 because there is no ground reference on X5, it is on X4. Everything should still be the same potential from X1 to X5.
On the other hand, the first question to me is asking what the
expected voltage would be based on the value that was obtained from my X1 to X4 measurement. This can be figured out using the example given by joaogemal.